20 Medical Law Quiz Questions and Answers

1. Which of the following best defines informed consent in medical law?
A. A patient’s agreement to treatment after being fully informed of risks and benefits.
B. A doctor’s decision to proceed with surgery without patient input.
C. A legal contract between a hospital and an insurance company.
D. A patient’s right to refuse treatment without any explanation.
Answer: A
Explanation: Informed consent requires that patients are provided with all necessary information about a procedure, including risks, benefits, and alternatives, to make an autonomous decision.

2. Under HIPAA in the United States, what is the primary purpose of protecting patient health information?
A. To ensure privacy and security of individually identifiable health information.
B. To reduce hospital administrative costs.
C. To mandate annual physical exams for all patients.
D. To limit doctor-patient communication.
Answer: A
Explanation: HIPAA’s main goal is to safeguard protected health information (PHI) from unauthorized access, use, or disclosure to maintain patient privacy.

3. In medical malpractice cases, what must a plaintiff typically prove to establish negligence?
A. Duty, breach of duty, causation, and damages.
B. Intent to harm the patient.
C. Violation of hospital policies only.
D. Financial loss without physical injury.
Answer: A
Explanation: The elements of negligence in medical malpractice include proving that the healthcare provider owed a duty of care, breached it, that the breach caused harm, and that damages resulted.

4. What is the legal doctrine of “res ipsa loquitur” in medical law?
A. The thing speaks for itself, implying negligence from the circumstances.
B. A requirement for written consent in all procedures.
C. A defense used by doctors in malpractice suits.
D. A rule mandating second opinions.
Answer: A
Explanation: Res ipsa loquitur allows a court to infer negligence when an injury would not normally occur without negligence, shifting the burden to the defendant to explain.

5. Which law in the U.S. addresses the portability of health insurance when changing jobs?
A. HIPAA.
B. Affordable Care Act (ACA).
C. Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act (EMTALA).
D. Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act (GINA).
Answer: A
Explanation: HIPAA includes provisions for health insurance portability, ensuring that individuals can maintain coverage when changing jobs without exclusions for pre-existing conditions.

6. In end-of-life care, what does a “Do Not Resuscitate” (DNR) order signify?
A. A legal instruction to withhold CPR or advanced cardiac life support.
B. Permission for elective surgery.
C. A requirement for immediate hospitalization.
D. A directive for aggressive treatment.
Answer: A
Explanation: A DNR order is a medical order indicating that a patient does not want CPR if their heart stops or they stop breathing, respecting their autonomy in end-of-life decisions.

7. What is the key principle of the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act (GINA)?
A. Prohibiting discrimination based on genetic information in health insurance and employment.
B. Requiring genetic testing for all employees.
C. Mandating disclosure of genetic results to employers.
D. Limiting access to family medical history.
Answer: A
Explanation: GINA protects individuals from discrimination by health insurers and employers based on genetic information, promoting privacy and fairness.

8. Under what condition can a doctor breach patient confidentiality?
A. When there is a serious risk of harm to others, such as in cases of communicable diseases.
B. For routine administrative purposes without consent.
C. To share information with family members upon request.
D. For marketing health services.
Answer: A
Explanation: Exceptions to confidentiality, like reporting communicable diseases, are allowed to protect public health, as mandated by laws such as HIPAA.

9. What does the Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act (EMTALA) require of hospitals?
A. To provide a medical screening and stabilize emergency patients regardless of ability to pay.
B. To admit all patients for elective procedures.
C. To charge patients based on insurance status.
D. To limit emergency care to citizens only.
Answer: A
Explanation: EMTALA ensures that hospitals with emergency departments screen and stabilize individuals in emergency medical conditions, preventing patient dumping.

10. In medical law, what is “vicarious liability”?
A. Holding an employer responsible for the negligent acts of an employee.
B. A patient’s liability for non-compliance with treatment.
C. Direct liability of a doctor for their own actions.
D. Liability shared equally among all healthcare providers.
Answer: A
Explanation: Vicarious liability means that employers, such as hospitals, can be held accountable for the negligence of their employees, like nurses or doctors, under their supervision.

11. What must be proven for a successful claim of battery in medical treatment?
A. Unauthorized touching or procedure without consent.
B. Intentional harm causing physical injury.
C. Negligent care leading to infection.
D. Breach of confidentiality.
Answer: A
Explanation: Battery in medical law occurs when a procedure is performed without the patient’s consent, constituting an intentional tort.

12. Which ethical principle is most closely tied to the legal concept of autonomy in medical law?
A. Respect for the patient’s right to make decisions.
B. Beneficence, or doing good for the patient.
C. Non-maleficence, or avoiding harm.
D. Justice in resource allocation.
Answer: A
Explanation: Autonomy emphasizes the patient’s right to self-determination, which is legally supported through informed consent and advance directives.

13. What is the statute of limitations in medical malpractice cases?
A. The time limit within which a lawsuit must be filed after the injury occurs.
B. A law requiring mandatory mediation before trial.
C. The maximum amount of damages awardable.
D. A rule for extending treatment periods.
Answer: A
Explanation: The statute of limitations sets a deadline for filing malpractice claims, varying by jurisdiction, to ensure timely legal action.

14. Under the Affordable Care Act, what is a key provision for preventive services?
A. Requiring insurance plans to cover certain preventive services without cost-sharing.
B. Mandating annual hospital visits for all insured individuals.
C. Limiting coverage to only chronic conditions.
D. Prohibiting preventive care for minors.
Answer: A
Explanation: The ACA ensures that many preventive services, like screenings and vaccinations, are covered at no additional cost to promote public health.

15. What role does the doctrine of “assumption of risk” play in medical law?
A. It may bar a patient’s claim if they knowingly accepted the risks of a procedure.
B. It requires doctors to assume all risks in surgery.
C. It assumes negligence in all high-risk procedures.
D. It limits informed consent requirements.
Answer: A
Explanation: Assumption of risk defenses argue that if a patient was aware of and accepted the risks, they cannot hold the provider liable for those specific outcomes.

16. In cases involving minors, who typically has the authority to provide consent for medical treatment?
A. The parent or legal guardian.
B. The minor themselves, if mature enough under state laws.
C. The attending physician.
D. Hospital administrators.
Answer: A
Explanation: Generally, parents or guardians provide consent for minors, though exceptions like emancipated minors allow the child to consent in some jurisdictions.

17. What is the primary focus of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act’s Privacy Rule?
A. Regulating the use and disclosure of protected health information.
B. Standardizing insurance premiums.
C. Requiring electronic health records.
D. Mandating patient education programs.
Answer: A
Explanation: The Privacy Rule under HIPAA sets national standards for protecting individuals’ medical records and other personal health information.

18. In medical law, what constitutes abandonment of a patient?
A. Terminating care without reasonable notice or ensuring continuity of care.
B. Recommending a second opinion.
C. Discharging a patient after full recovery.
D. Referring a patient to a specialist.
Answer: A
Explanation: Patient abandonment occurs when a healthcare provider suddenly stops treatment without proper handover, potentially leading to liability.

19. What does the term “standard of care” refer to in medical malpractice?
A. The degree of skill and care that a reasonably prudent healthcare provider would use.
B. The minimum treatment required by law.
C. A fixed protocol for all procedures.
D. The most advanced treatment available.
Answer: A
Explanation: The standard of care is the benchmark against which a provider’s actions are judged in malpractice cases, based on what is customary in the field.

20. Under what circumstances can a patient’s medical records be subpoenaed in court?
A. When ordered by a court for legal proceedings, with proper authorization.
B. For any research purposes without consent.
C. At the request of the patient’s family.
D. For routine audits by insurance companies.
Answer: A
Explanation: Subpoenas allow access to medical records in legal contexts, but they must comply with privacy laws like HIPAA to protect patient rights.